If 60.1(19) has come into affect, then I see no reason why not BUT the costs would be proportional to the time worked on the contract. E.g. if the person has been working for the company for 10 years and 1 year on this contract and the severance payment is £10,000, the payment from the Employer/Client would be a 1/10th of the £10,000 i.e.£1,000.
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